What causes an airplane (except a T-tail) to pitch nosedown when power is reduced and controls are not adjusted? A. When thrust is reduced to less than weight, lift is also reduced and the wings can no longer support the weight. B. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. C. The CG shifts forward when thrust and drag are reduced. Answer (A) is incorrect. Thrust and weight have no relationship to each other.B. The downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. Answer (A) is incorrect. Thrust and weight have no relationship to each other. Explanation of correct answer: Airplanes (except a T-tail) normally pitch down when power is reduced (and the controls are not adjusted) because the downwash on the elevators from the propeller slipstream is reduced and elevator effectiveness is reduced. This allows the nose to drop. The conditions necessary for the formation of cumulonimbus clouds are a lifting action and A. unstable, moist air. B. either stable or unstable air. C. unstable air containing an excess of condensation nuclei. Answer (C) is incorrect. There must be moisture available to produce the clouds and rain; e.g., in a hot, dry dust storm, there would be no thunderstorm. Lifting action, unstable air, and moisture are the ingredients for forming cumulonimbus clouds. KOKC 051130Z 0512/0618 14008KT 5SM BR BKNO30 TEMPO 0513/0516 1 1/2SM BR FM051600 18010KT P6SM SKC BECMG 0522/0524 20013G20KT 4SM SHRA OVC020 PROB40 0600/0606 2SM TSRA OVC008CB BECMG 0606/0608 21015KT P6SM SCT040= During the time period from 0600Z to 0800Z, what visibility is forecast for KOKC? A. Possibly 6 statute miles. B. Greater than 6 statute miles. C. Not forecasted. Answer (C) is incorrect. Between 0600Z and 0800Z, the visibility is forecast to be greater than 6 statute miles (P6SM). Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-28 Chap 27) At KOKC, between 0600Z and 0800Z, conditions are forecast to become wind 210° at 15 kt., visibility greater than 6 SM (P6SM), scattered clouds at 4,000 ft. with conditions continuing until the end of the forecast (1800Z). KOKC 051130Z 0512/0618 14008KT 5SM BR BKNO30 TEMPO 0513/0516 1 1/2SM BR FM051600 18010KT P6SM SKC BECMG 0522/0524 20013G20KT 4SM SHRA OVC020 PROB40 0600/0606 2SM TSRA OVC008CB BECMG 0606/0608 21015KT P6SM SCT040= The correct method of stating 4,500 feet MSL to ATC is A. “FOUR POINT FIVE.” B. “FOUR THOUSAND FIVE HUNDRED.” C. “FORTY-FIVE HUNDRED FEET MSL.” Answer (A) is incorrect. Four point five is slang (not correct) phraseology. When calling out altitudes up to, but not including, 18,000 ft., state the separate digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds, if appropriate (e.g., 4,500 ft. = four thousand five hundred). Unless otherwise noted, the altitudes are MSL. Answer (B) is correct. (AIM Para 4-2-9) ( ? ) The proper phraseology for altitudes up to but not including 18,000 feet MSL is to state the separate digits of the thousands, plus the hundreds, if appropriate. It would be “four thousand, five hundred.” According to 14 CFR part 91, at what minimum altitude may an airplane be operated unless necessary for takeoff and landing? A. In uncongested areas, 1,000 feet over any obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 feet. B. In congested areas, the pilot must maintain 500 feet over obstacles, and no closer than 500 feet to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. C. An altitude allowing for an emergency landing without undue hazard, if a power unit fails. Answer (B) is incorrect. In a congested area, the pilot must maintain an altitude of 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft. of the aircraft. Over uncongested areas, an altitude of 500 ft. above the surface, except over open water or sparsely populated areas. In those cases, the aircraft may not be operated closer than 500 ft. to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.119) ( ? ) Except when necessary for takeoff or landing, an aircraft should always be operated at an altitude high enough to permit an emergency landing without endangering people or property on the ground. 91.119 MINIMUM SAFE ALTITUDES: GENERAL Over congested areas (cities, towns, settlements, or open-air assemblies), a pilot must maintain an altitude of 1,000 ft. above the highest obstacle within a horizontal radius of 2,000 ft. of the airplane. The minimum altitude over other than congested areas is 500 ft. AGL. Over open water or sparsely populated areas, an airplane may not be operated closer than 500 ft. to any person, vessel, vehicle, or structure. Altitude in all areas must be sufficient to permit an emergency landing without undue hazard to persons or property on the surface if a power unit fails. How do variations in temperature affect the altimeter? A. Pressure levels are raised on warm days and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. B. Higher temperatures expand the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is higher than true altitude. C. Lower temperatures lower the pressure levels and the indicated altitude is lower than true altitude. Answer (B) is incorrect. Expanding (or raising) the pressure levels will cause indicated altitude to be lower (not higher) than true altitude. Answer (A) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25 Chap 8) On warm days, the atmospheric pressure levels are higher than on cold days. The altimeter will indicate a lower than true altitude. Remember, “low to high, clear the sky.” 2.7 ALTIMETER ERRORS Since altimeter readings are adjusted for changes in barometric pressure but not for temperature changes, an airplane will be at lower than indicated altitude when flying in colder than standard temperature air when maintaining a constant indicated altitude. On warm days, the altimeter indicates lower than actual altitude. Likewise, when pressure lowers en route at a constant indicated altitude, your altimeter will indicate higher than actual altitude until you adjust it. Remember, when flying from high to low (temperature or pressure), look out below. Low to high, clear the sky. Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to A. temperature reaching a maximum closer to noon than to sunset. B. minimum temperature occurring after sunrise. C. outgoing terrestrial radiation peaking at noon. Answer (A) is incorrect. Peak isolation occurs around noon, but maximum surface air temperature occurs during mid-afternoon. Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-28 Chap 11) At night, heating is absent, but terrestrial radiation continues cooling the earth’s surface. Cooling continues until shortly after sunrise, when incoming solar radiation once again exceeds outgoing terrestrial radiation. Minimum surface air temperature usually occurs shortly after sunrise. 7.11 TEMPERATURE INVERSIONS Normally, temperature decreases as altitude increases. A temperature inversion occurs when temperature increases as altitude increases. Temperature inversions usually result in a stable layer of air. A temperature inversion often develops near the ground on clear, cool nights when the wind is light. It is caused by terrestrial radiation. Temperature and radiation variations over land with a clear sky typically lead to the minimum temperature occurring just after sunrise when the incoming solar radiation is not yet strong enough to offset the terrestrial radiation from the Earth. Smooth air with restricted visibility is usually found beneath a low-level temperature inversion. The destination airport has one runway, 8-26, and the wind is calm. The normal approach in calm wind is a left-hand pattern to runway 8. There is no other traffic at the airport. A thunderstorm about 6 miles west is beginning its mature stage, and rain is starting to reach the ground. The pilot decides to A. depart expecting the thunderstorm to dissipate prior to arrival, then land on runway 8. B. delay departure until the thunderstorm has dissipated. C. fly an approach to runway 26 since any unexpected wind due to the storm will be westerly. Answer (C) is incorrect. Adverse winds always are found within thunderstorms and often many miles from the precipitation area. Crosswinds, gusts, and variable winds (i.e., sudden wind shifts) can lead to a crash during takeoffs, approaches, and landings. The best decision would be to deviate to an alternate airport, not fly an approach into the airport. Answer (B) is correct. (FAA-H-8083-25 Chap 12) During the mature stage of a thunderstorm, precipitation descends through the cloud and drags the adjacent air downward, creating a strong downdraft. The downdraft spreads out along the surface, well in advance of the parent thunderstorm cell, as a mass of cool, gusty air. Adverse winds always are found within thunderstorms and often many miles from the precipitation area. Crosswinds, gusts, and variable winds (i.e., sudden wind shifts) can lead to a crash during takeoffs, approaches, and landings. Therefore, the best decision would be to delay departure from the departure airport until the thunderstorm has dissipated at the arrival airport. Under what condition, if any, may a pilot allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft? A. Only if the person does not have access to the flight deck or pilot’s compartment. B. Under no condition. C. In an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. Answer (B) is incorrect. A pilot may allow a person who is obviously under the influence of drugs to be carried aboard an aircraft in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. Answer (C) is correct. (14 CFR 91.17) ( ? ) No pilot of a civil aircraft may allow a person who demonstrates by manner or physical indications that the individual is under the influence of drugs to be carried in that aircraft, except in an emergency or if the person is a medical patient under proper care. Which aircraft has the right-of-way over the other aircraft listed? A. Glider. B. Aircraft refueling other aircraft. C. Airship. Answer (C) is incorrect. An airship has the right-of-way over an airplane or rotorcraft but not a glider. Answer (A) is correct. (14 CFR 91.113) ( ? ) If aircraft of different categories are converging, the right-of-way depends upon who has the least maneuverability. A glider has right-of-way over an airship, airplane, or rotorcraft. 91.113 RIGHT-OF-WAY RULES: EXCEPT WATER OPERATIONS Aircraft in distress have the right-of-way over all other aircraft. When two aircraft are approaching head on or nearly so, the pilot of each aircraft should turn to his or her right, regardless of category. When two aircraft of different categories are converging, the right-of-way depends upon who has the least maneuverability. Thus, the right-of-way belongs to Balloons over Gliders over Airships over Airplanes or rotorcraft When aircraft of the same category are converging at approximately the same altitude, except head on or nearly so, the aircraft to the other’s right has the right-of-way. If an airplane of the same category as yours is approaching from your right side, it has the right-of-way. When two or more aircraft are approaching an airport for the purpose of landing, the aircraft at the lower altitude has the right-of-way. This rule shall not be abused by cutting in front of or overtaking another aircraft. An aircraft towing or refueling another aircraft has the right-of-way over all engine-driven aircraft. What must a pilot be aware of as a result of ground effect? A. Wingtip vortices increase creating wake turbulence problems for arriving and departing aircraft. B. A full stall landing will require less up elevator deflection than would a full stall when done free of ground effect. C. Induced drag decreases; therefore, any excess speed at the point of flare may cause considerable floating. Answer (A) is incorrect. Wingtip vortices are decreased, not increased. 1.5 GROUND EFFECT Ground effect is the result of the interference of the ground (or water) surface with the airflow patterns about an airplane. The vertical component of the airflow around the wing is restricted, which alters the wing’s upwash, downwash, and wingtip vortices. The reduction of the wingtip vortices alters the spanwise lift distribution and reduces the induced angle of attack and induced drag. Thus, the wing will require a lower angle of attack in ground effect to produce the same lift coefficient, or, if a constant angle of attack is maintained, an increase in the lift coefficient will result. An airplane is affected by ground effect when it is within the length of the airplane’s wingspan above the ground. The ground effect is most often recognized when the airplane is less than one wingspan’s length above the ground. Ground effect may cause an airplane to float on landings or permit it to become airborne with insufficient airspeed to stay in flight above the area of ground effect. An airplane may settle back to the surface abruptly after flying through the ground effect if the pilot has not attained recommended takeoff airspeed. Ground effect must be considered during takeoffs and landings. If a pilot fails to understand the relationship between the aircraft and ground effect during takeoff, a hazardous situation is possible because the recommended takeoff speed may not be achieved. Due to the reduced drag in ground effect, the aircraft may seem capable of takeoff well below the recommended speed. As the aircraft rises out of ground effect with insufficient speed, the greater induced drag may result in marginal initial performance. In extreme conditions, the aircraft may become airborne initially with insufficient speed and then settle back to the runway.